A 79-year-old woman is referred for perioperative evaluation prior to cataract surgery. Medical history is significant for hypertension, heart failure, mild intermittent asthma, gout, and nonvalvular atrial fibrillation for which she takes warfarin. Medications also include lisinopril, furosemide, carvedilol, and amlodipine. The patient has no history of stroke. Two weeks ago, the INR was 2.5.
Blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min and irregular. Jugular venous pressure is normal and the lungs are clear to auscultation. The patient has a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border without radiation. Pedal edema is not present.
What is the best way to manage this patient's anticoagulation?
A) Continue warfarin with no change in dosing or target INR
B) Discontinue warfarin 5 days prior to procedure and perform perioperative bridging with heparin
C) Hold warfarin until the INR normalizes, then restart warfarin postprocedure with no bridging
D) Permanently discontinue warfarin
E) Reduce warfarin dose and adjust target INR to 1.5 preoperatively
Correct Answer:
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