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A 22-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician Seeking Evaluation for Hair

Question 139

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A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician seeking evaluation for hair loss.  She developed a small, discrete patch of hair loss a few years ago that resolved spontaneously without scarring.  In the past 3 weeks, she has developed another patch that is larger than the previous one and is causing her significant anxiety.  She denies pulling on her hair.  There is no associated itching or burning of her scalp.  The patient has no other significant medical history.  Her only medication is birth control pills.  She is in graduate school and is under a lot of stress from her studies.
On examination, she appears healthy and her vital signs are normal.  A photograph of her scalp is shown below.
A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician seeking evaluation for hair loss.  She developed a small, discrete patch of hair loss a few years ago that resolved spontaneously without scarring.  In the past 3 weeks, she has developed another patch that is larger than the previous one and is causing her significant anxiety.  She denies pulling on her hair.  There is no associated itching or burning of her scalp.  The patient has no other significant medical history.  Her only medication is birth control pills.  She is in graduate school and is under a lot of stress from her studies. On examination, she appears healthy and her vital signs are normal.  A photograph of her scalp is shown below.   Some hairs in the margin are larger on top than at their base and are extractable with minimal traction.  There is no evidence of scalp inflammation and there are no nail abnormalities. Laboratory results are as follows:   What would be the most appropriate therapy for this patient? A) Cognitive behavioral therapy B) Discontinue oral contraceptive pills C) Intralesional corticosteroid injection D) Oral terbinafine for 2-4 weeks E) Topical minoxidil
Some hairs in the margin are larger on top than at their base and are extractable with minimal traction.  There is no evidence of scalp inflammation and there are no nail abnormalities.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician seeking evaluation for hair loss.  She developed a small, discrete patch of hair loss a few years ago that resolved spontaneously without scarring.  In the past 3 weeks, she has developed another patch that is larger than the previous one and is causing her significant anxiety.  She denies pulling on her hair.  There is no associated itching or burning of her scalp.  The patient has no other significant medical history.  Her only medication is birth control pills.  She is in graduate school and is under a lot of stress from her studies. On examination, she appears healthy and her vital signs are normal.  A photograph of her scalp is shown below.   Some hairs in the margin are larger on top than at their base and are extractable with minimal traction.  There is no evidence of scalp inflammation and there are no nail abnormalities. Laboratory results are as follows:   What would be the most appropriate therapy for this patient? A) Cognitive behavioral therapy B) Discontinue oral contraceptive pills C) Intralesional corticosteroid injection D) Oral terbinafine for 2-4 weeks E) Topical minoxidil
What would be the most appropriate therapy for this patient?


A) Cognitive behavioral therapy
B) Discontinue oral contraceptive pills
C) Intralesional corticosteroid injection
D) Oral terbinafine for 2-4 weeks
E) Topical minoxidil

Correct Answer:

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