A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician for a periodic health examination. She has a pigmented lesion on her right leg that she first noticed a few years ago and would like to have checked. The patient does not think that the mole has changed in appearance. She has had some sunburn in the past.
The patient is fair skinned and has reddish-blond hair and hazel eyes. Skin examination shows multiple cherry angiomata over her trunk and some on her upper extremities. There is dense freckling over her shoulders and barely perceptible dense freckling over her cheeks. There is a homogenous, well-demarcated, circular, light brown, and nonelevated lesion 5 mm in diameter over her right distal tibial area. No border irregularity is seen under dermoscopy.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Excisional biopsy
B) Punch biopsy
C) Reassurance and routine follow-up
D) Shave biopsy
E) Topical fluorouracil
Correct Answer:
Verified
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