A 57-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a rash on his elbows and knees. He initially had the rash 3 years ago, and it reoccurs every 3-4 months in the same regions. The patient has no pruritus or discharge during the episodes but notices an occasional silvery scale.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Skin examination of the left elbow is shown below. There is no drainage from the lesions or tenderness to palpation.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Biologic immunomodulator
B) High potency topical steroid
C) Low potency topical steroid
D) Oral prednisone
E) Topical calcineurin inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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