A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a rash on his right leg. He initially developed a minor traumatic laceration 3 weeks ago. He applied hydrogen peroxide and an over-the-counter topical antibiotic cream (neomycin-polymyxin-bacitracin) . The laceration improved during the first 4 days, but then a rash with significant pruritus and clear drainage developed around the wound over the next 2 weeks. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. His current medications include metformin, lisinopril, and rosuvastatin. He has no history of tobacco or alcohol use.
His vital signs are within normal limits. Skin examination of the right leg is shown below. There is clear drainage from the lesions and warmth to palpation. There is no tenderness. Examination of the extremities shows no pedal or ankle edema. The remainder of his physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Erysipelas
C) Necrotizing fasciitis
D) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
E) Toxic shock syndrome
Correct Answer:
Verified
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