A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 6-month history of a diffuse rash. The patient has episodes of localized itching on her arms followed by a rash that worsens over a few hours before spontaneously resolving. The rash has also occurred on her arms, legs, and back. The most recent episode occurred 2 days ago, and the patient has brought a photograph of the rash, shown below. She has no trauma, insect bites, travel history, or sick contacts. The patient has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and osteoarthritis of her knees. Her medications include metformin, lisinopril, and occasional ibuprofen. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
The patient's temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 138/77 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Her physical examination is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
A) Hydroxyzine
B) Loratadine
C) Montelukast
D) Prednisone
E) Ranitidine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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