A 36-year-old man comes to the office due to a leg injury. He suffered an abrasion to his right leg after falling from his motorcycle 5 days earlier. The patient washed the wound with tap water and covered it with an occlusive dressing but is now having increasing pain. He has not removed the dressing for the last 3 days due to pain. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, he is afebrile but has a 10-cm abrasion on the lateral right leg involving the epidermis and superficial dermis. There is a surrounding area of erythema and warmth extending 3-5 cm from the margin of the wound.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Intravenous vancomycin
B) Oral clindamycin
C) Topical hydrogen peroxide
D) Topical mupirocin ointment
E) Wet gauze dressings
Correct Answer:
Verified
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