A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician with several depigmented skin lesions on her hands and feet. She has no other physical complaints. Her past medical problems include migraine headaches, for which she takes naproxen as needed. She is married and has an 8-month-old child.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Skin examination findings are shown below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Antimitochondrial antibodies
B) Antinuclear antibodies
C) Intralesional corticosteroid injections
D) Skin biopsy
E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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