A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician complaining of persistent rhinorrhea. Her symptoms peak on arising from sleep and can be accompanied by 8-12 sneezes in rapid sequence. She has occasional postnasal drip. Her symptoms started about 5 years ago and have become progressively worse. There is no seasonal component to her symptoms, and she does not have itchy eyes. She has tried over-the-counter loratadine, which did not help. She has never had sinusitis, asthma, or eczema. The patient does not regularly use aspirin or over-the-counter nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents and has never used nasal sprays. She has no pets in the home. She takes amlodipine for hypertension.
Her blood pressure is 146/92 mm Hg and pulse 72/min. Her oropharynx is normal, and there are no nasal polyps. The turbinates are pale and boggy. Her chest is clear to auscultation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her symptoms?
A) Intranasal anticholinergic agent
B) Intranasal corticosteroids
C) Oral decongestant
D) Oral first-generation antihistamine
E) Oral leukotriene antagonist
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q194: A 20-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q195: A 32-year-old woman comes to the office
Q196: A 76-year-old woman is brought to the
Q197: A 52-year-old woman comes to the office
Q198: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q200: An 81-year-old woman is brought to the
Q201: A 58-year-old man comes to the office
Q202: A 29-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q203: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q204: A 41-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents