A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a thyroid nodule found on routine physical examination. He has no current complaints. His past medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and glucose intolerance without overt diabetes mellitus. The patient's medications include amlodipine, simvastatin, and low-dose aspirin. He has no family history of thyroid disease or cancer.
Ultrasound reveals a 2-cm nodule in the right thyroid lobe. Fine-needle aspiration findings are consistent with medullary thyroid cancer. MRI of the neck shows no local extension or lymph node involvement.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Plasma fractionated metanephrines are within normal range.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) CT scan of abdomen
B) Germline RET mutation analysis
C) Somatic RAS mutation testing
D) Thyroglobulin levels
E) Triphasic bone scan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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