A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a tingling sensation and pain in both hands. He believes that his hands are 'swollen.' He reports bilateral tingling and electric shock-like pain on the lateral aspect of his palms and first three digits. He is a software engineer and has difficulty typing because of bilateral hand pain. He also complains of fatigue and excessive malodorous sweat. His other medical problems include obstructive sleep apnea and hypertension and he uses CPAP at night. His medications include enalapril, amlodipine, chlorthalidone, and aspirin. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol.
His blood pressure is 146/88 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and BMI is 34 kg/m2. Skin examination reveals oily skin with skin tags over the nape of his neck. Tinel's sign is positive bilaterally.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) Rheumatoid factor levels
B) Growth hormone level
C) Insulin-like growth factor I levels
D) MRI of the brain
E) Nerve conduction studies
Correct Answer:
Verified
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