A 29-year-old woman comes to the physician because of recurrent headaches for the past 3 weeks. She describes her headaches as bifrontal and throbbing. She denies decreased vision, vomiting, fever, or head injury. Her stress level has increased over the past few weeks after she was laid off from her job. She has a history of migraine headaches as a teenager. She does not use tobacco or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. She stopped having menstrual periods after a progesterone-containing intra-uterine device was placed 18 months ago.
Examination, including neurologic examination, shows no abnormalities.
Complete blood count, chemistry profile, thyrotropin (TSH) , and liver function tests are all within normal limits.
MRI of the brain shows a 7 mm hypointense mass in the pituitary without stalk deviation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Automated visual perimetry
B) Cosyntropin stimulation test
C) Neurosurgery referral
D) No further testing and follow-up MRI in 12 months
E) Prolactin level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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