A 45-year-old man comes to the office for blood pressure follow-up. He has hypertension that has been difficult to control over the last 2 years. The patient has been following a low-salt diet and exercising to lose weight. He occasionally gets muscle cramps while exercising, but otherwise has excellent exercise tolerance and generally feels well. Current medications are lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, amlodipine, potassium chloride, and carvedilol. The patient is compliant with clinic visits and regularly fills his prescriptions. He has no other medical conditions, no significant family history of cardiovascular disease, and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg and pulse is 64/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. After 30 minutes, blood pressure is 160/95 mm Hg. During the previous visit, blood pressure was also in this range. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
An echocardiogram performed 6 months ago revealed mild left atrial dilation, left ventricular hypertrophy, and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 65%.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypertension?
A) Coarctation of the aorta
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Obstructive sleep apnea
D) Primary hyperaldosteronism
E) Renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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