A 54-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow up appointment. He has no complaints. His medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension. His current medications include metformin, glyburide, lovastatin, and lisinopril. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 6 years ago and at the time had a BMI of 31 kg/m2. He has since employed significant lifestyle changes to decrease his blood glucose levels and has lost 10 lbs (4.5 kg) . Both of his parents have type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He works as a supervisor in a grocery store. He walks 3 miles five times per week. He denies tobacco or alcohol use.
His physical examination is unremarkable, except for a BMI of 29 kg/m2.
His hemoglobin A1C trend is shown below.
Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD) antibody is not detected.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's worsening glycemic status?
A) Increase in insulin resistance
B) Late autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)
C) Medication non-compliance
D) Progressive insulin deficiency
E) Statin therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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