A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of generalized weakness, weight gain, and leg swelling for the last several weeks. Her appetite is decreased. She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, or cough. Her other medical problems include hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She had positive skin tuberculin skin test approximately 20 years ago when she moved to the United States from India, and she received 9 months of isoniazid therapy. Her medications include ramipril and atenolol.
Her temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg, and pulse is 60/min. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2. Examination shows normal jugular venous pressure and muffled first and second heart sounds. Her lungs are clear to auscultation. There is no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly. Examination shows 1+ pitting edema to the mid-shin bilaterally.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Electrocardiogram shows low voltage complexes and sinus bradycardia. Echocardiogram reveals normal left ventricular size, a left ventricular ejection fraction of 50%, and a mild-to-moderate pericardial effusion. There is no right atrial or right ventricular collapse.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) CT scan of chest and tuberculin skin test
B) Loop diuretics and an ACE inhibitor
C) Pericardiocentesis
D) Right heart catheterization
E) Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer:
Verified
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