A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for emergency contraception. The patient had unprotected intercourse with her boyfriend 2 nights ago after a condom broke. She is not using any form of contraception other than condoms with spermicide. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The patient has no medical problems and has had no surgeries. She takes no daily medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are normal. BMI is 26 kg/m2. On speculum examination, there is a mucopurulent discharge at the cervical os; no vaginal bleeding is noted. The uterus is small and mobile. There are no adnexal masses or tenderness.
Urine pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptives
B) Copper-containing intrauterine device
C) Etonogestrel subcutaneous implant
D) Levonorgestrel-only pill
E) Methotrexate injection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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