A 50-year-old woman comes to the office due to involuntary leakage of urine. The leakage started a year ago and currently occurs several times a day when the patient coughs, sneezes, laughs, or stands up. She also sometimes has loss of urine during sexual intercourse. The patient awakens to urinate once each night; she has had no dysuria, hematuria, urinary urgency, or fecal incontinence. She has had 2 vaginal deliveries. Her incontinence makes her self-conscious during social interactions and she has stopped participating in exercise classes. Her general health is otherwise good.
Physical examination is within normal limits, except for a BMI of 32 kg/m2. Pelvic examination reveals mild uterine prolapse. A cough with a full bladder elicits an immediate release of a small amount of urine.
Urinalysis is normal. Post-voiding urinary residual volume is 20 mL. The patient is currently collecting information in a voiding diary regarding fluid intake, voiding frequency, and amount of urine.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Behavioral changes and pelvic muscle exercises
B) Duloxetine hydrochloride
C) Incontinence pessary
D) Mid-urethral sling procedure
E) Urodynamic studies
Correct Answer:
Verified
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