A 26-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up visit. The patient was first seen 4 months ago for irregular menstrual periods and hirsutism. Laboratory results at that time showed mildly elevated levels of serum testosterone and LH but normal levels of FSH, prolactin, salivary cortisol, TSH, and 17-hydroxyprogesterone. Serum chemistry profile, including liver enzymes and glucose tolerance test, were normal. Based on symptoms and laboratory results, she was diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome and started on oral contraceptives.
After the patient's initial visit, she began eating a low-carbohydrate diet and started exercising for 30 minutes, 5 times a week, which has led to significant weight loss. Her menstrual cycles are now regular, every 28 days. In addition, her hirsutism has markedly improved. The patient is a medical assistant and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and does not desire pregnancy. Family history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension in both parents.
Blood pressure is 124/70 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. The patient has moderate terminal hair growth on the face, chest, lower abdomen, and lower back. The remainder of the physical examination is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Add metformin
B) Add spironolactone
C) Continue current therapy
D) Order pelvic ultrasound
E) Switch to a progestin-releasing intrauterine device
Correct Answer:
Verified
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