A 28-year-old woman comes to the office due to bilateral breast discomfort that occasionally interferes with physical activity. The pain begins the week prior to menses and subsides on the first day of her menstrual cycle, which occurs every 30 days; her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with leg vein thrombosis after an ankle fracture and was treated with a direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months. Family history is significant for osteoporosis in her grandmother and aunt.
Vital signs are normal. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals bilateral, mildly tender nodularity of the upper lateral breast quadrants. There are no skin changes, palpable lymph node enlargement, or nipple discharge.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Breast ultrasound
B) Progestin therapy
C) Serum estradiol, FSH, and prolactin levels
D) Supportive bra
E) Tamoxifen therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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