A 53-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for a routine gynecologic examination. The patient says that she feels well. Menopause was at age 50. Medical problems include obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus managed with a single oral medication. The patient is sexually active with a new partner of 6 months; her husband of 18 years died several years ago. She has a 30-pack-year smoking history but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals no abnormalities.
A Pap test is performed and the cervical cytology report specifies that there are "atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance."
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Colposcopy
B) Diagnostic excisional procedure
C) Endocervical curettage
D) Human papillomavirus testing
E) Repeat cervical cytology in 3 years
Correct Answer:
Verified
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