A 48-year-old woman comes to the office for a well-woman examination and a discussion about menopausal symptoms. She has experienced unpredictable and progressively worsening episodes of flushing, sweating, and anxiety that interfere with her occupational performance during the day and wake her from sleep at night. The patient has attempted to manage her symptoms by turning on the air conditioner in the winter and dressing in layers. Her menstrual cycles have become irregular, occurring every 28-50 days. The patient had a tubal ligation at age 40, and her postoperative course was complicated by lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. She does not use tobacco and does not have a personal history of breast cancer.
Blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 17/min. The well-woman physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management to reduce this patient's symptoms?
A) Dopamine reuptake inhibitor
B) Estrogen-progestin transdermal patch
C) Estrogen transdermal patch
D) Phytoestrogen supplement
E) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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