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A 42-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for Evaluation of Amenorrhea

Question 311

Multiple Choice

A 42-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea for the past 3 months.  She previously had relatively regular menses, typically occurring monthly with 4-5 days of moderate bleeding.  The patient has had 1 or 2 irregular cycles each year, but usually went no more than 6-8 weeks without a menstrual period.  She has had increasing fatigue and a 2.7-kg (6-lb) weight gain over the past few months, but has had no changes in vision or in heat or cold intolerance.  She has no chronic medical conditions.  The patient had a cesarean delivery with a bilateral tubal ligation 10 years ago.
Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min.  BMI is 23 kg/m2.  Cardiopulmonary examination is normal.  The abdomen is soft and nontender.  Pelvic examination reveals a uniformly enlarged, anteverted uterus; there are no adnexal masses.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?


A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Menopause
E) Pregnancy

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