A 42-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of amenorrhea for the past 3 months. She previously had relatively regular menses, typically occurring monthly with 4-5 days of moderate bleeding. The patient has had 1 or 2 irregular cycles each year, but usually went no more than 6-8 weeks without a menstrual period. She has had increasing fatigue and a 2.7-kg (6-lb) weight gain over the past few months, but has had no changes in vision or in heat or cold intolerance. She has no chronic medical conditions. The patient had a cesarean delivery with a bilateral tubal ligation 10 years ago.
Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination reveals a uniformly enlarged, anteverted uterus; there are no adnexal masses.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometrial cancer
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Menopause
E) Pregnancy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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