A 57-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the office for an annual health maintenance examination. The patient is feeling well and has no medical concerns. She has depression and hypertension, which are well controlled with her current regimen. Her maternal aunt died from metastatic breast cancer at age 72.
Vital signs are normal. BMI is 29 kg/m2. Breast examination reveals a nontender, fixed, 3-cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. There are no skin changes, nipple discharge, or associated axillary lymphadenopathy. A diagnostic mammogram and breast ultrasound reveal no masses or calcifications.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) BRCA testing
B) Clinical breast examination and repeat imaging in a year
C) Core needle biopsy
D) MRI of the breast
E) Tamoxifen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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