A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for a 6-month history of occasional epigastric pain that is relieved by eating. The patient has tried over-the-counter antacids and ranitidine with some relief. He has had no dysphagia, weight loss, black stools, or blood in the stool. The patient has a 15-pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol socially. He immigrated to the United States from China at age 12 with his family. He had a normal screening colonoscopy 2 years ago.
Blood pressure is 126/80 mm Hg, pulse is 81/min, and BMI is 24 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Rectal examination reveals guaiac-negative stool. The remainder of the examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
B) Barium swallow study
C) Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing
D) Proton pump inhibitor for 6 weeks
E) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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