A 66-year-old man comes to the physician with watery diarrhea for the past 2 days. The diarrhea is nonbloody and occurs about 3 times during the day and once or twice at night. He has no fever or abdominal pain. The patient is currently on day 6 of amoxicillin/clavulanate that his primary care physician prescribed for maxillary sinusitis.
His blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 20/min. He appears in no acute distress. Cardiopulmonary examination is within normal limits. The abdomen is soft without tenderness. Rectal examination shows normal tone without stool in the vault.
Stool samples are negative for Clostridium difficile using polymerase chain reaction.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Check stool ova and parasites
B) Proceed with sigmoidoscopy
C) Repeat Clostridium difficile toxin test
D) Stop antibiotic and observe clinically
E) Stop antibiotic and start oral vancomycin
Correct Answer:
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