A 37-year-old man with 3 months of bloody diarrhea comes to the physician for follow-up after a colonoscopy showed superficial ulcerations from the rectum to the mid descending colon. The biopsies showed chronic active colitis. He was started on prednisone and is currently taking 20 mg. He has 3 nonbloody bowel movements daily. The patient has no other medical problems. He quit smoking 5 months ago. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs.
Vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Bowel sounds are present. There is no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly. Rectal examination is normal with no skin tags or external hemorrhoids, but stool is guaiac positive.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue steroids
B) Taper steroids off and observe
C) Taper steroids off and start infliximab
D) Taper steroids off and start mesalamine
E) Taper steroids off and start Saccharomyces boulardii
Correct Answer:
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