A 40-year-old man comes to the physician with pain, swelling, warmth, and redness of his distal right lower extremity for the past 3 days. No recent trauma has occurred to the area. He had a similar episode 1 year ago in his right leg and was hospitalized for cellulitis, which responded quickly to antibiotics. He has no previous history of lower-extremity edema or recurrent infections. The patient exercises at a gym 3 times a week. He does not use tobacco or illicit drugs and works as an accountant.
Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows swelling, warmth, and erythema of his right lower extremity starting from his foot up to the mid-calf region. There is also erythema in the 1st and 2nd toe web spaces with chronic-appearing skin erosions. There is no purulent drainage or ulcers. Pulses are 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities.
In addition to treatment of his cellulitis, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Prophylactic antibiotics to cover beta-hemolytic streptococci
B) Prophylactic antibiotics to cover methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
C) Skin biopsy
D) Treatment of tinea pedis
E) Weight loss and diet modification
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q486: A 27-year-old woman comes to the outpatient
Q487: A 22-year-old man living in Connecticut comes
Q488: A 64-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q489: A 34-year-old immigrant from Brazil comes to
Q490: A 24-year-old woman is being evaluated for
Q492: A 29-year-old man comes to the office
Q493: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q494: A 32-year-old nurse is evaluated 3 days
Q495: A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q496: A 36-year-old man who just returned from
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents