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A 40-Year-Old Man Comes to the Physician with Pain, Swelling

Question 491

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old man comes to the physician with pain, swelling, warmth, and redness of his distal right lower extremity for the past 3 days.  No recent trauma has occurred to the area.  He had a similar episode 1 year ago in his right leg and was hospitalized for cellulitis, which responded quickly to antibiotics.  He has no previous history of lower-extremity edema or recurrent infections.  The patient exercises at a gym 3 times a week.  He does not use tobacco or illicit drugs and works as an accountant.
Vital signs are within normal limits.  BMI is 32 kg/m2.  Examination shows swelling, warmth, and erythema of his right lower extremity starting from his foot up to the mid-calf region.  There is also erythema in the 1st and 2nd toe web spaces with chronic-appearing skin erosions.  There is no purulent drainage or ulcers.  Pulses are 2+ in the bilateral lower extremities.
In addition to treatment of his cellulitis, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Prophylactic antibiotics to cover beta-hemolytic streptococci
B) Prophylactic antibiotics to cover methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
C) Skin biopsy
D) Treatment of tinea pedis
E) Weight loss and diet modification

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