A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a week of sore throat, fatigue, and malaise. He has had several episodes of diarrhea but no abdominal pain. His past medical history is unremarkable. The patient reports several new sexual partners in the last 6 months. Last year, screening tests for HIV, syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia were all negative.
His temperature is 38.2 C (100.8 F) , blood pressure is 120/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination shows pharyngeal erythema and shallow, tender ulcers on the buccal mucosa and the posterior pharynx. There is a fine macular rash on his trunk, hands, and feet.
Serum HIV RNA levels are markedly elevated.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Combination antiretroviral therapy
B) Single-agent antiretroviral therapy
C) Symptomatic treatment only
D) Wait for CD4 cell count to determine treatment
E) Wait for HIV genotype and resistance testing to determine treatment
Correct Answer:
Verified
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