A 24-year-old man comes to the office due to hematuria. For the past 2 days, he has been passing bright red blood at the end of micturition. He has mild dysuria, but no fever or abdominal pain. He travels throughout Africa frequently and returned from a rafting trip in central Africa 3 months ago. The patient followed medical advice regarding vaccinations and medication prophylaxis. His past medical history is otherwise insignificant. He drinks 2-3 cans of beer on the weekend and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. The patient has one sexual partner, with whom he uses condoms consistently. He works as a sales representative.
His temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 68/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender without organomegaly. The external genitalia are unremarkable. On rectal examination, the prostate is normal in size and nontender.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
B) Cystoscopy
C) Peripheral blood smear
D) Schistosoma serology
E) Tuberculin skin test
Correct Answer:
Verified
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