A 35-year-old woman comes to the office with a tongue lesion that she noticed recently. She has no pain or difficulty swallowing. A few months earlier, she had a sexual encounter that included oral sex with a new male partner.
On examination, there is a 2-cm ulcer with induration on the dorsal aspect of the tongue. Multiple, nontender, cervical lymph nodes are present. The rest of her skin and genital examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's tongue lesion?
A) Antinuclear antibody screen
B) Empiric systemic acyclovir
C) Incisional biopsy
D) Treponema pallidum enzyme immunoassay
E) Triamcinolone acetonide
Correct Answer:
Verified
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