A 31-year-old man comes to the physician because of right testicular swelling for the past one week. He recalls trauma to the perineum and testes when he fell from a bike one month ago. He is otherwise healthy and has no other complaints. His past medical history is unremarkable. He admits to several unprotected sexual encounters in the past. He smokes marijuana occasionally but does not smoke tobacco. He denies any intravenous drug use.
On physical examination, a non-tender right testicular mass is palpated. Scrotal ultrasound shows a well-defined 2 x 1.5 cm hypoechoic lesion without cystic components in the right testis. His HIV test is negative. Serum alpha-fetoprotein and β-hCG levels are normal. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis do not reveal any lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?
A) Fine needle aspiration
B) Incisional biopsy
C) Radical inguinal orchiectomy
D) Repeat ultrasound in 4-6 weeks
E) Trial of antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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