A 58-year-old man comes to the office due to tremor in his right hand. The patient first noticed the tremor a year ago, and it has progressively worsened to the point that he has difficulty writing. He often becomes self-conscious and feels embarrassed in social situations. The patient has had no headache, vision impairment, difficulty speaking or swallowing, sleep disturbances, bowel or bladder incontinence, extremity weakness or numbness, or memory loss. He has a history of hypertension for which he takes lisinopril. The patient is an attorney and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is unremarkable.
Neurologic examination shows a Mini-Mental State Examination score of 29/30. A low-frequency tremor is noted in the right hand when resting the arm on a chair. The tremor is exacerbated by mental distraction such as counting backward and becomes less prominent with voluntary activity such as reaching for a pen. When the patient writes, his words become progressively smaller and illegible. There is mild rigidity of the bilateral upper extremities with decreased arm swing during ambulation. The remainder of the neurologic examination shows no other abnormalities.
Blood cell counts, serum chemistry studies, and thyroid function tests are within normal limits. MRI of the brain shows no abnormalities.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Deep-brain stimulation
B) Donepezil
C) Pramipexole
D) Propranolol
E) Trihexyphenidyl
Correct Answer:
Verified
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