A 25-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation comes to the office for a consultation regarding a positive HIV-1 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and a confirmatory Western blot that were ordered as part of routine prenatal care. She has never been tested before and does not know when she was exposed to HIV. She has no other chronic medical conditions and has had no prior surgeries. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin but no other medication. She does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. The patient is a college student and lives with her boyfriend.
Physical examination is within normal limits. A complete blood count, basic metabolic panel, lipid panel, and hepatic function panel are all normal. HIV viral load is 3,240 copies/mL and CD4 count is 473 cells/mm3.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate therapy at delivery
B) Initiate therapy if CD4 count is <350 cells/mm3
C) Initiate therapy if viral load is >100,000 copies/mL
D) Initiate therapy immediately
E) Initiate therapy in the third trimester
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q608: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q609: A 43-year-old man comes to the office
Q610: A 30-year-old primigravida at 18 weeks gestation
Q611: A 28-year-old woman at 15 weeks gestation
Q612: A 38-year-old man comes to the office
Q614: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q615: A 45-year-old woman returns to the office
Q616: A 48-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q617: A 33-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation
Q618: A 32-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents