A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 25 weeks gestation comes to the office for a follow-up visit. The patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus a week ago and was started on an appropriate diet. She has a history of infertility due to polycystic ovarian syndrome and conceived via ovulation induction. The patient's pregnancy has been complicated by excessive weight gain. She has no other chronic medical problems and has had no surgeries. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily. The patient's mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus and her father has hypertension.
Vital signs are normal. Fetal heart rate is 150/min. Fundal height is 25 cm. On examination, the skin on the axilla and back of the neck is notable for acanthosis nigricans. The remainder of the examination is within normal limits.
Hemoglobin A1c is 7.3%. Home blood glucose levels for the last 5 days are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue diet with close follow-up
B) Prescribe glyburide
C) Prescribe insulin
D) Prescribe metformin
E) Prescribe sitagliptin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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