A 32-year-old woman comes to the office for preconceptual counseling due to a history of insulin-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus during her previous pregnancy 2 years ago. The pregnancy ended with a cesarean delivery for arrest of descent. There were no postpartum complications and the insulin was discontinued after delivery. A glucose tolerance test at the postpartum visit was normal. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. Medications include a prenatal vitamin and oral contraceptives.
Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. BMI is 29 kg/m2. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
The patient asks about her risk of diabetes mellitus (DM) in her next pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about this patient's risk of recurrence?
A) Postpartum testing was normal; therefore, the risk of recurrent gestational DM is low.
B) There is a high risk for type 2 DM that requires first-trimester screening.
C) There is an average risk for gestational DM that requires third-trimester screening only.
D) There is no risk of gestational DM if a preconception hemoglobin A1c is normal.
E) There is no risk of recurrent gestational DM; there is an increased risk for type 2 DM.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q600: A 65-year-old man is evaluated for a
Q601: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q602: A 72-year-old man comes to the office
Q603: A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q604: A 75-year-old woman comes to the office
Q606: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q607: A 43-year-old executive comes to the office
Q608: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q609: A 43-year-old man comes to the office
Q610: A 30-year-old primigravida at 18 weeks gestation
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents