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A 40-Year-Old Obese Man Comes to the Physician Because of Exertional

Question 681

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old obese man comes to the physician because of exertional dyspnea, fatigue, and poor energy over the past year.  He was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea and started on nocturnal continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) six months ago with mild improvement of his symptoms.  He reports compliance with CPAP "most of the time."  He denies cough, chest pain, dizziness, or syncope.  His other medical problems include hypertension, glucose intolerance, and pain in both hips and knees which increases at the end of the day.  He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
His blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 16/min.  Oxygen saturation is 94% on room air.  His BMI is 44 kg/m2.  Jugular venous pressure is difficult to estimate.  Lungs are clear to auscultation.  Heart sounds are distant but no murmurs are heard.  There is 2+ symmetric peripheral edema.
His hemoglobin level is 16.2 g/dL and his serum TSH is 2.5 mU/L.
Chest x-ray shows low lung volumes but is unremarkable otherwise.  Spirometry shows an FEV1 of 70% predicted and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 90%.  Transthoracic echocardiography is limited by body habitus, but shows mild right ventricular enlargement.
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient?


A) Arterial blood gases
B) Exercise SPECT
C) High-resolution CT scan of the chest
D) Nocturnal oximetry
E) Ventilation/perfusion scan

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