A 58-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the office for a follow-up visit. Medical history also includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, coronary artery disease, and osteoarthritis. He has diabetic nephropathy with a baseline creatinine of 2.0-2.5 mg/dL. The patient's mobility is impaired due to right knee osteoarthritis and diabetic neuropathy. Medications include acetaminophen, insulin, metoprolol, valsartan, chlorthalidone, aspirin, and atorvastatin.
Blood pressure is 159/102 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 36 kg/m2. Physical examination shows 2+ bilateral lower extremity edema.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Start lisinopril
B) Substitute amlodipine for metoprolol
C) Substitute furosemide for chlorthalidone
D) Substitute lisinopril for valsartan
E) Substitute spironolactone for metoprolol
Correct Answer:
Verified
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