An 18-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 days of right foot pain. She is a ballet dancer and has been practicing intensely over the last few weeks for an upcoming show. The patient is under a lot of stress and is worried that the pain may limit her practice sessions. She has no medical history other than a left tibia stress fracture a year ago. The patient has irregular menses, and her last menstrual period was 12 weeks ago. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
BMI is 17 kg/m2. There is focal tenderness over the right fourth metatarsal shaft. Urine pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Make an orthopedic referral for surgical repair
B) Order a CT scan of the foot
C) Refer for physical therapy
D) Screen for an eating disorder
E) Start bisphosphonate therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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