A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with left leg pain and swelling that has worsened over the last 2 days. The patient has no fevers, chills, dyspnea, or chest pain and has had no trauma to the left leg. Her medical history includes rheumatoid arthritis and gastroesophageal reflux disease, for which she takes low-dose methotrexate, folic acid, and omeprazole. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years and does not consume alcohol. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2. The left leg is swollen (>4 cm) compared to the right and is warm and tender on palpation. Pitting edema is present. Her legs are shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Blood cultures followed by antibiotics
C) Chest CT angiogram
D) Compression ultrasonography
E) D-dimer test
F) Empiric anticoagulation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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