A 54-year-old woman comes to the office due to a slow-growing, painless mass in the right submandibular region. The patient had a right molar extraction for severe tooth decay 2 months ago and soon thereafter developed swelling of the right jaw. There was no pain or fever so she did not seek medical attention. The swelling slowly worsened and 3 days ago began draining a thick yellow discharge. The patient has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 134/78 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination shows a 4x4 cm, firm, nontender, indurated mass below the angle of the right mandible with erythematous overlying skin. Palpation expresses serosanguineous fluid with small yellow granules through a small defect in the center of the lesion. There is no crepitus. Anaerobic culture of the needle aspirate grows filamentous gram-positive rods with rudimentary branching. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?
A) Amphotericin B
B) Azithromycin
C) Fluconazole
D) Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
E) Metronidazole
F) Penicillin
G) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
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