A 38-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a 2-week history of worsening headaches and low-grade fever. She has no weakness or sensory loss. The patient has lost a significant amount of weight over the last 6 months. Her temperature is 38.1 C (100.5 F) , blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 18.7 kg/m2. The patient has neck stiffness and cervical lymphadenopathy. Oropharyngeal examination shows thrush. The neurologic examination is nonfocal, and fundoscopy is within normal limits. CT scan of the head without contrast is normal. Lumbar puncture is performed and results of cerebrospinal fluid analysis are as follows:
Cerebrospinal fluid fungal stain shows encapsulated yeast. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Amphotericin plus flucytosine
B) Griseofulvin
C) HIV testing and antiretroviral therapy
D) Itraconazole
E) Sulfadiazine-pyrimethamine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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