A 29-year-old man comes to the office due to 10 days of fatigue and copious watery diarrhea. He has had no fever, stool with blood or mucus, tenesmus, or vomiting. The patient returned a week ago from a 3-week trip to Eastern Europe. During this trip, he spent much time hiking and swimming in local lakes and streams. He has no chronic medical problems and takes no medications. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 15/min. Cardiopulmonary auscultation is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender with increased bowel sounds and no organomegaly. Stool is negative for leukocytes and fecal occult blood. Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A) Clostridioides difficile
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Shigella flexneri
E) Strongyloides stercoralis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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