A 6-year-old girl is brought to the office by her parents after they noticed the development of axillary and pubic hair. She has also had a significant growth spurt over the past year. There has been no change in her behavior or school performance. The patient has no headaches, vomiting, or visual disturbances. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. Family history is unremarkable. BMI is at the 97th percentile for age and sex. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. Axillary hair is present and pubic hair is Tanner stage 3; external genitalia are normal. The breasts are Tanner stage 3. Neurologic examination is normal. Bone age is advanced. Serum FSH and LH levels are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's symptoms?
A) Early activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis
B) Estrogen-producing ovarian cysts
C) Excess peripheral conversion of testosterone to estrogen
D) Excess production of 17-hydroxyprogesterone
E) Exogenous estrogen exposure
F) Increased adrenal production of dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
Correct Answer:
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