A 2-year-old girl is brought to the office by her mother, who noticed an abnormality in the genital area while changing her diaper. The patient has had multiple diaper rashes over the last 6 months but has had regular bowel movements and no dysuria or hematuria. She has no chronic medical conditions and no known allergies. Vital signs are normal. On pelvic examination, the labia minora appear thin, are fused together at the midline, and partially block the urethral meatus. Multiple excoriations are seen, but there is no rash or perianal involvement. No vaginal discharge is seen at the introitus. Internal pelvic examination is deferred. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Candida vulvovaginitis
B) Contact dermatitis
C) Labial adhesions
D) Lichen sclerosus
E) Pinworm infection
F) Urethral prolapse
Correct Answer:
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