A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to left leg pain. The patient typically has pain in both legs after walking a couple of blocks, but several hours ago, severe left leg pain suddenly developed while he was resting. He reports numbness in the left leg, and he is also experiencing intermittent palpitations. Medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia. The patient has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 116/min and irregular. On examination, hair is sparse on both legs. Distal pulses are absent on the left and diminished on the right. Sensation to light touch is decreased on the dorsum of the left foot and leg, and ankle dorsiflexion is weaker on the left. Which of the following is the best first step in management of this patient?
A) Ankle-brachial index
B) CT angiography of the lower extremities
C) Intravenous heparin infusion
D) Surgical bypass grafting
E) Transthoracic echocardiography
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q38: A 40-year-old woman is brought to the
Q39: An 80-year-old Asian man comes to the
Q40: A 34-year-old man is being discharged from
Q41: A 22-year-old previously healthy man is brought
Q42: A 42-year-old obese woman with a history
Q44: A 30-year-old man comes to the office
Q45: A 11-year-old girl is brought to the
Q46: A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q47: A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q48: A 40-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents