A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to nausea, dizziness, and headache for a day. Her menses began 2 days ago. She has occasionally had fatigue and dizziness during her menstrual periods, but today's symptoms feel different. The patient has a history of von Willebrand disease, causing recurrent, heavy menstrual blood loss, and is scheduled for an endometrial ablation procedure. Her only medication is intranasal desmopressin taken on the first 3 days of her menstrual period. Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min and regular, and respirations are 18/min. The patient appears restless. Mucous membranes are moist. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ throughout and Babinski sign is absent. Sensory examination shows no focal deficits. The chest is clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is no peripheral edema. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Arterial blood gas
B) Liver function studies
C) MRI of the brain
D) Plasma desmopressin level
E) Serum electrolytes
Correct Answer:
Verified
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