A 42-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up visit. She has been following a weight-loss program with dietary modification and exercise for the past several months. The patient weighs 110 kg (242 lb) and is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall. BMI is 38 kg/m2. In the last 6 months, she has lost 3% of her initial body weight on a balanced, low-calorie (1000 kcal/day) diet. The patient has been strictly adhering to dietary recommendations and exercising "as much as possible" but feels she is not making progress. She also feels hungry all the time. The patient says she is motivated to lose weight but is starting to feel discouraged by her results. Medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and obstructive sleep apnea. Blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination shows an obese habitus but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Bariatric surgery referral
B) Further reduction of caloric intake
C) Low-carbohydrate diet
D) Phentermine for appetite suppression
E) Strict 60 minutes of daily aerobic exercise
Correct Answer:
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