A 48-year-old woman comes to the office due to impaired vision. For the last year, she has had progressive loss of visual acuity. The patient is unable to read her computer screen and has stopped driving at night due to excessive glare from oncoming headlights. History is notable for chronic HIV infection, which has been well controlled with a multidrug antiretroviral regimen. Examination shows opacification of the lenses bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's eye condition?
A) Antioxidant supplement
B) Cytomegalovirus IgG antibody assay
C) Fluorescein dye staining
D) Latanoprost eye drops
E) Surgical removal of the lens
Correct Answer:
Verified
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