A 33-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of a thyroid nodule that was discovered incidentally on a routine physical examination 3 weeks ago. The patient feels well and has experienced no weight changes, temperature intolerance, or menstrual irregularities. Medical history is notable for primary hypothyroidism treated with levothyroxine. Family history is notable for hypertension and hypothyroidism in her mother, but the patient has no relatives with a history of thyroid cancer. TSH is normal. Neck ultrasound reveals a 2.0-cm hypoechoic nodule in the right lobe of her thyroid without any enlarged lymph nodes. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals large cells with ground glass cytoplasm, and pale nuclei containing inclusion bodies and central grooving consistent with papillary thyroid cancer. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Antithyroid peroxidase antibody assay
B) Genetic mutation analysis in fine-needle aspiration biopsy sample
C) Measurement of serum calcitonin
D) Radioactive iodine ablation
E) Surgical resection
F) Thyroid scintigraphy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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