A 58-year-old man is evaluated for hypertension in the postanesthesia care unit 3 hours after undergoing open left inguinal hernia repair with placement of mesh. The surgery, which lasted approximately 1 hour, was performed using both general anesthesia and local anesthetic. Medical history is significant for obesity and prior surgical hemorrhoidectomy. The patient is alert and reports vague lower abdominal discomfort. Blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg and pulse is 104/min. A surgical dressing on the left groin is intact with a small amount of serosanguinous drainage. There is mild distension in the central part of the lower abdomen, where palpation increases the patient's discomfort. The rest of the abdomen is soft and nontender. Postoperative telemetry reveals sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administration of additional opioid analgesics
B) CT scan of the abdomen
C) Exploration of the surgical site in the operating room
D) Intravenous antihypertensive medication
E) Portable bladder ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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